Help me out here. Did the Treaty of Paris grant allodial title to the United States, or to the 13 states. If the latter, who held title to non-state lands east of the mississippi river? The Articles of Confederation doesn't reference allodial title but merely that the states have "sovereignty." At any rate, the revolutionary war was still underway when the articles were ratified. The US Constitution is also silent on the issue. I'm interested in the early history of real estate law.
A dim light is shed on this subject in the Northwest Ordinance of 1787. It provides for freehold estates for public officials and further states that no taxes on property shall exist in the United States (Article 4). This would imply that private title is held in allodia, although it doesn't explicitly say that...
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