Originally Posted by
Invisible Man
The word we were discussing when I said what you quoted was the word semitic, not semite. Someone else quoted that definition above. But here's the source I had checked before posting what I did.
https://www.dictionary.com/browse/semitic
This is an old rhetorical trick that antisemites love to use. They chain together a string of definitions to say they're not antisemites, because, according to them, an anti-semite is someone who hates semites, and Arabs are semites, and they love Arabs, and besides most Jews aren't semites anyway because they're supposedly descended from Khazars or something so hating them wouldn't make someone an antisemite anyway, and voila.
Never mind that
the actual definition of the word antisemite strictly means hatred of Jews, and has nothing to do with ancestry, and that even using the other words in their chain, they have to cherry pick definitions in order to make it work, hoping nobody actually looks up the words they use.
That's a typical trick of Zionists, you know, the Jews that supported Hitler? Change the definition of the word so that only use can use it. Gay no longer means "happy." Woman no longer means adult female human with XX chromosomes. Semite no longer means semite. From Webster's definition of semetic.
Definition of Semitic (Entry 1 of 2)
1: of, relating to, or constituting a subfamily of the Afro-Asiatic language family that includes Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, and Amharic
2: of, relating to, or characteristic of the Semites
3: JEWISH
So from definition 2, "semetic" includes everyone that falls under "semite" which includes Jews and Arabs and others. From your warped definition of semite, the 10 tribes of Israel that broke off after Solomon's apostasy and later became the Samaritans wouldn't count as "semites" because they aren't Jews and we all know "The Jews have no dealings with the Samaritans." Pure lunacy.
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