As some of you probably know from personal experience, the laws in the US governing the post-divorce division of assets and alimony are often preposterously unjust. Since there have been some significant reform efforts in recent years, I thought this would be a good topic for discussion. How do you think the post-divorce financial settlement ought to work? I lay out my own thoughts below.
1. Marriage is a contract. Putting aside its informal religious and cultural aspects (which have no legal existence), marriage is fundamentally a contract between consenting adults. If a contract concerning post-divorce finances (i.e. a pre-nup) is in evidence, the courts should enforce it. It is reprehensible that courts routinely set aside otherwise valid pre-nups on grounds of "unconscionability" (i.e. the judge's subjective and inchoate dislike of the contract). But this only takes us so far, since evidence of a contract will usually be missing or incomplete. In that case, there must be default rules for the courts to follow to settle the dispute. In general, default rules should represent the contract terms which we think reasonable people likely would have adopted if they had thought about it.
DEFAULT RULES
2. At-Fault v. No-Fault. First, the court should determine who, if anyone, is at fault for the divorce. If neither or both parties are at fault, then the divorce is classified as no-fault. If only one party is at fault, then the divorce is classified as at-fault. A spouse is at fault if he or she commits one of a handful of severe offenses: e.g. adultery, serious physical abuse, or massive waste of joint assets (e.g. draining the bank account to play the ponies). There may well be others, but this is to be a short list of severe offenses.
3. Dividing the Assets. For no-fault divorce, each party should be entitled to a share of currently existing assets equal to the share of assets they brought into the marriage. For example, if Bob generated $1M over the course of the marriage, while Mary generated $100k, Mary's share would be 1/11th of whatever assets exist at the time of divorce. For at-fault divorce, the victim-spouse should get the larger of (a) her share of the assets as calculated above, or (b) half of the assets.
TL;DR - if the divorcing spouse has good reason, she gets half; if not, she gets what she put in.
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