Why inflation is so modest with zero interest rates and after Q1 and Q2?
My own explanation (which might be bogus) is that government bonds are interchangeable with money, and when Bernanke printed money to buy bonds, he didn't in fact change the money supply, because bonds are part of the money supply. So banks now have one type of money (cash) instead of another type of money (bonds). So theoretically this shouldn't change much.
What do you think?
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