"Milton Friedman's writings contend the terrible contraction of the 30s was caused by tight money and worsened by the gold standard. His explanation is more plausible than it being attributable to a credit expansion and subsequent collapse. Federal Reserve Board Governor Bernanke agreed (FRB: Speech, Bernanke--Money, Gold, and the Great Depression --March 2, 2004)."
I am arguing with an economics "expert" and want to take down his arguments.
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