I had an exchange with my poli sci teacher last week after he cited WW2 as the only reason the Great Depression was ended.
I pointed out that the economy didn't see real growth till '47 AFTER tax reductions and soldiers coming home & spending.
He then said, "Oh I know about you people, the monetarist, Ron Paul types." He went on to say that people like us have been warning of hyperinflation occuring in 2006 and that we were wrong about that. I pointed out that that's one prediction and that he was shooting the messenger. Then he went on to make the claim that he's heard all this before and that there's no empirical evidence to support my position.
At the end of the class he mentioned that he was just trying to present both viewpoints and be non-biased.
These are the figures I need some help debunking... he gave us this definition:
Income Inequality: Share of the national income going to the 0.01%
and examined how since the neo-liberal revolution it has risen dramatically.
I am always quick to point out that the neo-liberal "revolution" was a sham and that fiat central banking has distorted the free market. He claims these figures prove Keynesian benevolence:
"Income Inequality"
USA:
1928: 5.02%
1975: 0.85%
2008: 5.03%
Sweden:
1916: 5.15%
1935: 0.24%
2008: 1.2%
What other points can I make to debunk his "proof"? Thanks!
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