I've been following this issue somewhat closely, but I'm sure that many of you have been following it much more closely, and can tell me all the details of this, so, why exactly were some private businesses, private bus companies, private lunch counters, segregated prior to the 64 Civil Rights Act?
I haven't seen this particular aspect in the forefront of the discussion. Was there segregation because the private businesses were forced to segregate by the government? By local law or state law? The answer of course has something to do with "Jim Crow" laws. But were the Jim Crow laws only about public accommodations (drinking fountains), and were the private businesses (lunch counters) not reached by the Jim Crow laws.
I have heard others state that the private businesses were segregated because the government forced them to. If that's true, wouldn't the problem have been solved, or mostly solved, by simply stating that the government could not force private businesses either to segregate or not segregate. Rand did make reference to free market solutions, but I'm not clear about businesses being forced to segregate.
It seems that if it was true that businesses were forced to segregate, we could argument that these problems were caused by government, not by a lack of a federal government law.
Anybody have any good links about forcing private businesses to segregate?
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