Rent prices are always higher than the price to buy with a mortgage (assuming creditworthiness being equal) for several reasons.
The landlord has to price in the
- Cost of an unoccupied home
- Repairs that are not part of wear and tear, but a bad tenant
- The cost of time to manage a home
- Profit
Also, the landlord, since the investment property is a second home, cannot write off interest expenses. I think?
So, unless the WaltM is living in his mother's basement, or in the forest, he's going to be paying more than what Yates would be for a similar home with a mortgage.
If both had the same income, the same spending habits, and the only difference was an owned or rented property, Yates would own a home outright in 30 years for less than what WaltM had rented it for.
Plus, Yates would be able to write off the interest expense at his own tax rate. So, if he paid $300k in interest as mentioned above, he'd actually only pay about 216k thanks to the tax credit.
At the end of 30 years, WaltM would have slightly less savings than Yates, and Yates would own a home outright.
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