I had a discussion with a friend about EO 11110. Its my understanding that Kennedy wanted to introduce the US Note, which was interest-free. Wouldn't this undermine the FRN? He's under the belief the order had nothing to do with the Federal Reserve. I'll post an excerpt from his email:
What am I missing here, if anything? How could I respond? Thanks in advanceFirst, know Gresham's Law... bad money chases out good money (sometimes called race to the bottom).
So, if US Notes are good money, why would anyone use them? Instead, they would hoard them.
Second, all US currency at the time (greenbacks, silver certificates, gold certificates, federal reserve notes) was redeemable in silver. All of them!
Third, Kennedy wanted to avoid debt, but not because he cared about sound money. He wanted to avoid Congress.
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