03-15-2021, 12:48 PM
Given corporations would not exist without special protections granted by the government in the first place, it is prudent to assume they function as proxies for the government. Following this logic, they should be treated as if they are the government and be subject to the same restrictions the government is supposed to adhere to. At that point, the distinction becomes, "The government is using its proxies to censor, and isn't that a violation of the first amendment?"
Perhaps this is just me being some kind of conspiracy theorist, but I am of the belief there is a lot of collusion between corporations and politicians. Politicians receive corporate funding and corporations receive regulatory capture. Due to this, I do not believe drawing distinctions between the two as private or public entities serves much purpose other than to allow an unimpeded encroachment upon the rights of the common man.
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