03-25-2024, 09:01 PM
Say PAF, I'm not really an advocate of this "voting" stuff, and I know you aren't either. But I came through the government education machine when I was young, and I recall a lot of lip service being paid to the concept of "no taxation without representation"(the founders where evidently obsessed with that concept). So, following that concept, it strikes me that if you own a residence in Massachusetts and a vacation home in New Hampshire, and you pay property taxes on both properties, then you ought to have a single vote for representation in both Massachusetts and New Hampshire state and local governments. Likewise, if you pay sales taxes (or any of the other taxes levied within a jurisdiction) then you ought to be able to vote for government representation within that jurisdiction; regardless of whether you're a French or Mexican citizen passing through that jurisdiction or a resident of that jurisdiction. What's peculiar about that is that because the US doesn't have direct elections for President and Vice President, then I ought to be able to vote for electors for choosing the Pres and VP in both Massachusetts and New Hampshire.
This voting stuff has always seemed a bit confusing to me.
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