This came up in a Q&A with Stefan Molyneux a few years ago and he didn't really have an adequate answer.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature...W0zxDVs#t=1361
If there is a clear aggressor in a war, and a person privately donates his own funds to that aggressor, does that thereby incriminate HIM as an aggressor as well? The important caveat is that the gift was
justly held by the person giving it, not stolen, so this doesn't pertain to
government-funded wars.
Basically, I guess the question is whether a mere gift- in the right situation- can constitute aggression.
Robert F. Kennedy Jr. On The Record
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