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Originally Posted by Occam's Banana

This is no different from the "logic" employed by the courts (including SCOTUS) in declaring that police have no obligation to protect persons or property.

And the logic is completely correct. The failure lies in the absence of followup reasoning which directly and irrevocably demonstrates that police have no place in a free and civilized land, much less any authority to act against the sovereign rights of the Individual. The language and reason to which you refer does, ...