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moderate libertarian
03-14-2012, 07:08 AM
Does anyone know why US media did/does not use descriptions like "accused 9/11 hijackers" or "accused 9/11 mastermind OBL" in news reports?

This is a headline on Drudge relating to recent reported Afghan civilians killing in Afghanistan by a US military sniper:

"Accused soldier had 'brain injury'"

thoughtomator
03-14-2012, 07:11 AM
Innocence for overt agents of the state is presumed.

luctor-et-emergo
03-14-2012, 07:12 AM
Perception, is propaganda.
That's why the media 'manufactures' your opinion...

moderate libertarian
03-14-2012, 07:18 AM
Informative answers, thank you.