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charrob
07-06-2010, 07:27 PM
i was trying to remember the actual events and the actions taken by Congress in September 2001.

Ron Paul wrote on 9/17/2001:

To declare war against a group that is not a country makes the clear declaration of war more complex.

The best tool the framers of the Constitution provided under these circumstances was the power of Congress to grant letters of marque and reprisals, in order to narrow the retaliation to only the guilty parties. The complexity of the issue, the vagueness of the enemy, and the political pressure to respond immediately limits our choices.

http://www.ronpaullibrary.org/document.php?id=218



And on 9/14/2001 Congress voted for this: "H.J. Res. 64":
http://www.house.gov/ryan/press_releases/2001pressreleases/useofforce91401.html
http://clerk.house.gov/evs/2001/roll342.xml#N


Questions:


So, is it correct to say that Congress did not vote on 9/14 to grant the letters of 'marque and reprisals' that RP speaks of?

And if Congress had granted these letters (or even a formal declaration of war at the time), wouldn't that have still given the President the same authorization of force (since he is the commander in chief) that he got thru the finalized "H.J. Res. 64"?