Nate K
04-25-2009, 12:57 AM
I'm not a Constitutional scholar but from what I've read, the Constitution doesn't grant us rights, but the people grant the government it's power.
I'm discussing it with someone and here is their response that confuses me..
From the bill of RIGHTS here are the times that the word right is mentioned:
"right of the people peaceably to assemble"
"the right of the people to keep and bear arms"
"The right of the people to be secure in their persons"
"the right to a speedy and public trial"
"the right of trial by jury shall be preserved"
Those are just the ones that actually use the term.
You are trying to say that the Bill of Rights doesn't grant the people rights, it merely tells the government that its not allowed to take those rights away. Now, you sound like maybe you might have a point, but you do not.
In a state of nature, completely devoid of government or any kind of state, everything is a right. You can kill a man, smoke week, speed in your car, build a house, etc. By establishing government you surrender some of these rights to the state in exchange for certain protections and services. For example you give up the right to drive as quickly as you want and the government sets up traffic laws and a police force to enforce them so that the roads are safe. When a right is surrendered to the state we are granting the state certain powers, such as the ability to pull over speeders. Most of what we argue over about government is where to draw the line between rights and powers. What the Constitution does, and the Bill of Rights as well, is set up the framework for the line. The Bill of Rights in particular takes certain rights and says "the government can never infringe upon these." In effect the Bill of Rights grants these rights to the people forever. These rights are different from say the right of a gay person to marry which is near the line between rights and powers and may be crossing soon.
Now I already know that all of the times he listed the places it says "rights".. in the actual amendment it says after it "..shall not be infringed". Meaning that right already existed.
The exception is the 6th Amendment..
In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the State and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the Assistance of Counsel for his defence.
This appears to be a positive right, or are things different because it has to do with someone already accused?
I'm discussing it with someone and here is their response that confuses me..
From the bill of RIGHTS here are the times that the word right is mentioned:
"right of the people peaceably to assemble"
"the right of the people to keep and bear arms"
"The right of the people to be secure in their persons"
"the right to a speedy and public trial"
"the right of trial by jury shall be preserved"
Those are just the ones that actually use the term.
You are trying to say that the Bill of Rights doesn't grant the people rights, it merely tells the government that its not allowed to take those rights away. Now, you sound like maybe you might have a point, but you do not.
In a state of nature, completely devoid of government or any kind of state, everything is a right. You can kill a man, smoke week, speed in your car, build a house, etc. By establishing government you surrender some of these rights to the state in exchange for certain protections and services. For example you give up the right to drive as quickly as you want and the government sets up traffic laws and a police force to enforce them so that the roads are safe. When a right is surrendered to the state we are granting the state certain powers, such as the ability to pull over speeders. Most of what we argue over about government is where to draw the line between rights and powers. What the Constitution does, and the Bill of Rights as well, is set up the framework for the line. The Bill of Rights in particular takes certain rights and says "the government can never infringe upon these." In effect the Bill of Rights grants these rights to the people forever. These rights are different from say the right of a gay person to marry which is near the line between rights and powers and may be crossing soon.
Now I already know that all of the times he listed the places it says "rights".. in the actual amendment it says after it "..shall not be infringed". Meaning that right already existed.
The exception is the 6th Amendment..
In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the State and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the Assistance of Counsel for his defence.
This appears to be a positive right, or are things different because it has to do with someone already accused?