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View Full Version : Is it Possible All Mortgage Contracts Are Void and Foreclosures are Invalid?




WarDog
11-13-2008, 12:51 PM
This case has been suppressed far more than argued against, and it has not been overturned. What this means to homeowners facing foreclosure is that they may not even owe their bank any money, and the lender is trying to take the home to pay an illegal contract. This case is, quite possibly, a get out of debt-jail free card.

http://ezinearticles.com/?Is-it-Possible-All-Mortgage-Contracts-Are-Void-and-Foreclosures-are-Invalid?&id=1069976

DamianTV
11-13-2008, 07:17 PM
Since risk must be assumed by both parties, then I'd say yes, they are invalid. When banks "create" money out of thin air to loan to you, they are not really taking any real risk, and the only thing that gives the banks power is your signature of the promise to "repay" said loan. If they didnt give you anything of any real value and it was created from a signature, there is no real risk, thus no collateral, thus the contracts are invalid.

Good luck finding a judge to hold up to that tho.