New here, with a BIG question

[notbornyesterday]

How can the Senate vote FIRST on an appropriations bill that didn't originate in the House?

Here is the opening to Article 1, section 7 of the Constitution:

Section 7. All bills for raising revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with amendments as on other Bills.


Now, does that second part mean that the Senate has a Constitutional authority to do what they did today? Or is it all more smoke-and-mirrors?

I'm confused and miffed at the same time.

NBY

[jlaker]

Very good question! Do they really have the authority or are they just pulling the wool over the eyes. My guess is there are trying to pressure the house. To tell them look, we came together enough to pass this bill, what's your problem.

[RSLudlum]

They voted to amend/substitute the text to H.R. 1424, sending the bill back to the House for approval of the change ... shenanigans as usual!!

[notbornyesterday]

OK, I think I understand. So it would seem that "shenanigans" is a very precise and literal term in the case of what Congress is doing!

[WokeUpDazed]

I am not versed in Government procedures, but I would be willing to bet that George W saying that this bill must get passed would tend to make things turn however they want them to. It is really sad but it is going to pass one way or another because "they are the Government, and we are not"

Great Video on that BTW: Depressing and not helpful, but unfortunately true in alot of ways.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pvsADU2OOWM :eek: