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dubo12
08-06-2008, 05:06 PM
According to Article II section 1, electors from each state vote for Pres. and VP but at least one of the candidates cannot be a resident of the SAME state as the electors. This means to me that if both candidates were from Texas, then the electors from Texas could not vote for both candidates. If bush and Cheney were both from Texas, the electors from texas could NOT vote for them both.
Am I understanding this correctly.

FindLiberty
08-06-2008, 05:07 PM
Co$titution?

foofighter20x
08-06-2008, 11:02 PM
This was brought up when Cheney was initially picked as the VP candidate in 2000.

The question to ask is what happened next?

Well, Dick Cheney, before being the CEO of Halliburton and a resident of Texas, was the U.S. Representative for the State of Wyoming.

When Bush gave Cheney the VP nod, Cheney changed his voter registration (and thus his residency) back to Wyoming. Jackson Hole, to be exact.

Matt Collins
08-14-2008, 04:00 PM
I believe that this was changed with an amendment?

aspiringconstitutionalist
08-19-2008, 03:17 PM
I believe that this was changed with an amendment?

No, the 12th amendment changed the election of the VP from whoever gets the second largest number of presidential electoral votes to whoever gets the largest number of vice presidential electoral votes. That might be what you're thinking of. The prohibition against the President and VP being from the same state remains, however.

malibuu
09-23-2008, 11:35 AM
The prohibition against the President and VP being from the same state remains, however.

Only in regards to the electors from THAT state of common residency - the other 49 could still elect the same state President/VP pair.