Copperhed51
07-30-2008, 07:23 PM
Ok, so I've done my fair share of research into federal drug laws and how it is that they are enforced. What it all boils down to is a phrase in the Constitution that says:
"The Congress shall have Power To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes"
Then the Controlled Substances Act says this:
"(3) A major portion of the traffic in controlled substances flows through interstate and foreign commerce. Incidents of the traffic which are not an integral part of the interstate or foreign flow, such as manufacture, local distribution, and possession, nonetheless have a substantial and direct effect upon interstate commerce because -
(A) after manufacture, many controlled substances are transported in interstate commerce,
(B) controlled substances distributed locally usually have been transported in interstate commerce immediately before their distribution, and
(C) controlled substances possessed commonly flow through interstate commerce immediately prior to such possession."
The Controlled Substances Act also says:
(5) Controlled substances manufactured and distributed intrastate cannot be differentiated from controlled substances manufactured and distributed interstate. Thus, it is not feasible to distinguish, in terms of controls, between controlled substances manufactured and distributed interstate and controlled substances manufactured and distributed intrastate.
This is what their entire argument for enforcing this law is based on. It's saying, "We can't prove that you didn't buy this through interstate commerce channels that we have control over, so it is illegal. BUT, it has long been held that in the United States, one phrase controls legal proceedings: ei incumbit probatio qui dicit, non qui negat (the burden of proof rests on who
asserts, not on who denies). The Controlled Substances Act has no legal merit because it assumes guilt by admitting it can't prove it. You can't do that in law. Anybody have any legal thoughts?
"The Congress shall have Power To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes"
Then the Controlled Substances Act says this:
"(3) A major portion of the traffic in controlled substances flows through interstate and foreign commerce. Incidents of the traffic which are not an integral part of the interstate or foreign flow, such as manufacture, local distribution, and possession, nonetheless have a substantial and direct effect upon interstate commerce because -
(A) after manufacture, many controlled substances are transported in interstate commerce,
(B) controlled substances distributed locally usually have been transported in interstate commerce immediately before their distribution, and
(C) controlled substances possessed commonly flow through interstate commerce immediately prior to such possession."
The Controlled Substances Act also says:
(5) Controlled substances manufactured and distributed intrastate cannot be differentiated from controlled substances manufactured and distributed interstate. Thus, it is not feasible to distinguish, in terms of controls, between controlled substances manufactured and distributed interstate and controlled substances manufactured and distributed intrastate.
This is what their entire argument for enforcing this law is based on. It's saying, "We can't prove that you didn't buy this through interstate commerce channels that we have control over, so it is illegal. BUT, it has long been held that in the United States, one phrase controls legal proceedings: ei incumbit probatio qui dicit, non qui negat (the burden of proof rests on who
asserts, not on who denies). The Controlled Substances Act has no legal merit because it assumes guilt by admitting it can't prove it. You can't do that in law. Anybody have any legal thoughts?